The Divorcer, The Divorced & The Third Party

The Divorcer

Matthew 19:9, “…Whosoever shall put away his wife,…and shall marry another, committeth adultery…”

Mark 10:11, “…Whosoever shall put away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against her.”

Mark 10:12, “And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.” Cf. Romans 7:2-3; I Corinthians 7:39

Luke 16:18, “Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery…”

The Exception Clause for Those Who May Sunder the Marriage

Matthew 5:32, “…Whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery”

Matthew 19:9, “…Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery…”

The Divorced

Matthew 5:32, “…Whosoever shall put away his wife,…causeth her to commit adultery…” Cf. Matthew 18:7; Romans 7:2-3; I Corinthians 7:2-5, 39

The Third Party

Matthew 5:32, “…and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.”

Matthew 19:9, “…and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.”

Luke 16:18, “…and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery.”

Synopsis:

1) Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery.

2) Whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery.

3) Whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery. Cf. Matthew 19:9b; Luke 16:18b

It’s Not Fair

Many times, the innocent suffer due to the sins of others:

What about the innocent mate whose spouse puts them away but then never remarries another (or doesn’t commit fornication in any way), why can’t the “innocent” then remarry someone else?

What about the innocent mate who is repeatedly “defrauded” (I Corinthians 7:2-5), why can’t the “innocent” party put away and remarry someone who will keep their vows?

What about the innocent mate whose spouse disappears (never to be seen or heard from again), why can’t this “innocent” spouse put away and remarry another?

What about the innocent spouse whose partner commits a serious crime (against their mate’s will) and is sentenced to “life without the possibility of parole,” why can’t the “innocent” remarry another?

“What about” and “what if” scenarios could be given all day, but NO hypothetical situation can revise even one jot or tittle of God’s law!
Moreover, once we allow for one compromise, we would be inconsistent and hypocritical to preclude any others!
Hence, we cannot compromise the will of God to placate men; for when we seek to appease the anger of men, we will only arouse the indignation of the Almighty!

The Context of Matthew 5:32

“It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement: 32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.” Matthew 5:31-32

(Was the “writing of divorcement” given BEFORE or AFTER the marriage was dissolved?)

Why is the man guilty of, “causeth her to commit adultery” because of his unapproved divorce? Cf. Matthew 18:7

Cp. w. I Cor. 7:2-5, “Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. 3 Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence: and likewise also the wife unto the husband. 4 The wife hath not power of her own body, but the husband: and likewise also the husband hath not power of his own body, but the wife. 5 Defraud ye not one the other, except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer; and come together again, that Satan tempt you not for your incontinency.”

The Context of Matthew 19:9

Matthew 19:3, “…Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?”

Do we have any evidence that first century Jews ever “put away” AFTER a divorce? Cf. Mt. 5:31-32

Note verses 5-6, “And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.” (emp. jhb).

Their counter (v. 7) was: “Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?”

[Although the Jews went back to the law of Moses (v. 7), Jesus went back to THE BEGINNING (v. 8)! Nevertheless, to “put away” in verses 3 and 9 of Matthew 19, is equated with sundering the “one flesh” marriage relationship. Nothing more, nothing less and nothing else (Cf. I Corinthians 7:10-11).]

Was the “writing of divorcement” given BEFORE or AFTER the marriage was dissolved? Cf. Mt. 5:31-32

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” Matthew 19:9 (“is put away” cf. Mt. 5:32b; Lk. 16:18b = “unmarried” cf. I Corinthians 7:10-11)