WHAT DOES THE
TEXT (GOD’S LAW) SAY?
(1 Peter 4:11)
Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another,
committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her
husband committeth adultery. (KJV)
What does “putteth away” mean? (Does it mean divorce?
If “putteth away” does not mean divorce, what does it
mean? (Does “put away” mean the same as “putteth away” in the text, yes, or
Is the put away woman, therefore, divorced, yes, or no?
(Even though God did not approve of the divorce, was she not divorced, yes, or
Is she still married to the first man or divorced “put
away from” the first man?
Does “marrieth another” mean the same as “marrieth her?”
When she marries again, is she married to the second man
Is the second man married to her or not?
Is the first man who divorced her still in adultery after
she marries again?
Is anyone in this verse free to marry again? (Are all
four living in adultery, yes, or no?)
Did God approve of the divorce and marriages taking place
in this verse? [If so, which one(s)?]
For the woman which hath
an husband is bound by the law to her husband so long as he liveth; but if the
husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her husband. (KJV)
The marriage bond (“bound”) is for life, yes or no?
If the husband dies, is the woman still bound? (May she
marry again, yes, or no?)
So then if, while her husband liveth, she be married to
another man, she shall be called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she
is free from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be married to
another man. (KJV)
If (while her husband lives) she is married to another
man, is she still bound to the first man, yes, or no?
If married means bound, why is she not bound to two men,
since the text plainly says that she married another man (while her husband
was still living)?
Does the word married (used two times) mean two different
things in this verse, yes, or no?
Does it not simply mean married (both times that the term
is used), yes, or no?
Can she be married many times, yet still be bound to the
(living) first man, yes, or no?
Therefore, does bound and married mean the same thing in
the text, yes, or no (Rom. 7:2-3)?
Paul said, “So then if, while her husband liveth, she be
married to another man” – what does “married to another man” mean? (Was she
married to this second man, yes, or no?) (To which man was she bound, first,
second, or both? v. 2)
And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife,
except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and
whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery. (KJV)
Does “put away” mean the same in both places in the text?
(Does it mean divorce, yes, or no? NKJV)
Does “marry” and “marrieth” mean the same thing? (Does it
simply mean to marry, yes or no?)
On what basis may one divorce his or her mate and marry
another – without committing adultery?
Who is the one that is free to marry again in this verse?
Is the one put away (divorced) free to marry in this
When does the “except for fornication” apply – at the
time of the divorce, or days, weeks, months, or years later?
Did the wife in the text want to be divorced? (Do we know
whether or not she protested the divorce?)
Did her wanting (or not wanting) the divorce make any
difference – was she divorced, yes or no?
Was it fair for her to be divorced if she did not commit
fornication? (Does that change what the text says, yes, or no?)
Did the man who divorced his wife (though she did not
commit fornication) act in harmony with God’s law? (Does that change what the
text says, yes, or no?)